If a lens that reaches best performance at a wider aperture is always better then wouldn't the 40mm f/5.6 Zeiss be a bad lens? Or does it also have to do with magnification factors? Also what if the best performance of one lens at say f/5.6 is worse than the Leitz at f/6--wouldn't it still be outperformed by the Leitz? I have never experienced such massive diffraction as you are talking about with a 50mm enlarger lens (granted I use them at f/5.6-8)Originally Posted by Claire Senft
I'm not meaning to be argumentative, but I'm working on <2 hours of sleep and I am not following the logic.